Medicoder Quiz

1. Let’s start easy. What does ICD stand for in medical coding?

A) International Coding Directory B) International Classification of Diseases C) Internal Coding Document D) Insurance Claim Document

2. Which coding manual do you usually use for outpatient procedure coding?

A) ICD-10-CM B) CPT C) HCPCS D) DSM-5

3. If I say HCPCS Level II codes, what are they mostly used for?

A) Mental health diagnosis B) Medications, supplies, and equipment C) Inpatient diagnosis D) Surgery coding

4. Can you tell me what “upcoding” means?

A) Assigning a higher-paying code than necessary B) Coding after working hours C) Using codes without guidelines D) Changing codes from numeric to alphabet

5. Which organization publishes CPT codes?

A) CMS B) WHO C) AMA D) AAPC

6. Now, how often are ICD codes officially updated?

A) Every 10 years B) Every 5 years C) Every year D) Once in a lifetime

7. What would Modifier -59 typically indicate?

A) New patient visit B) Distinct and separate procedure C) Telemedicine D) Anesthesia

8. What’s the purpose of DRG in medical coding?

A) Disease Reading Guide B) Diagnosis Related Group C) Drug Reference Guide D) Data Reporting Guide

9. Which of these is considered a coding compliance issue?

A) Reading patient charts B) Double-checking codes C) Upcoding or unbundling D) Attending seminars

10. For anesthesia coding, what factor is most important?

A) Color of the patient file B) Time spent C) Patient’s blood group D) Number of nurses

11. Which code range is used for Evaluation and Management (E/M) in CPT?

A) 10021 - 69990 B) 80050 - 89398 C) 99201 - 99499 D) 30000 - 39999

12. Which section of ICD-10-CM covers external causes of injury?

A) Chapter 10 B) Chapter 15 C) Chapter 20 D) Chapter 5

13. If you see a code with the letter “Z” at the beginning in ICD-10, what does it usually mean?

A) Infectious disease B) Neoplasms C) Factors influencing health status D) Obstetrics

14. Which one of these is NOT a valid place of service (POS) code?

A) 11 - Office B) 23 - Emergency Room C) 21 - Inpatient Hospital D) 99 - Outer Space

15. What does the term “medical necessity” mean in coding?

A) Doctor’s personal choice B) Something the patient demands C) Service justified by diagnosis D) Service that looks good on paper

16. What is the primary diagnosis?

A) The least severe condition B) The condition treated during that encounter C) Any random symptom D) Future risk factors

17. Suppose a patient was readmitted within 30 days for the same issue. What must you watch out for in coding?

A) DRG downgrade B) Risk of duplication C) Patient’s birthday D) Color of patient file

18. Which of these is an example of an unbundling coding error?

A) Coding bundled services separately B) Using modifiers C) Adding diagnosis codes D) Charging less for services

19. If a patient came in for chemotherapy, which code from HCPCS would you expect?

A) A-Codes B) J-Codes C) G-Codes D) S-Codes

20. What is the “global period” in surgery coding?

A) Worldwide surgery stats B) Days around the procedure covered for payment C) The month of coding D) Surgeon’s vacation

21. Which one of these bodies monitors and prevents healthcare fraud?

A) FIFA B) NASA C) OIG D) AMA

22. Why do we use modifiers in coding?

A) To replace a code B) To confuse the insurance C) To give additional details about the service D) To avoid payment

23. If two conditions equally meet criteria for coding, what should the coder do?

A) Pick randomly B) Choose the more expensive one C) Follow sequencing rules and query physician D) Delete both

24. If you’re coding a screening mammogram, what should you never forget?

A) Patient’s favorite color B) Append the right modifier C) Include anesthesia D) Mention the weather

25. What is the biggest risk if coding is done incorrectly?

A) Patient gets angry B) Insurance company sends a cake C) Claim denials or legal action D) Hospital throws a party

Medicoder Quiz

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